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Legal Term- franchise
1. In constitutional law, a unique privilege that the Crown grants to a subject. It is also referred to as a liberty and is exemplified by the right to operate a ferry or market. 2. (Constitutional law) The ability to vote in an election. In order to be eligible to vote in a parliamentary election, an individual must meet the following criteria: be a Commonwealth citizen or a citizen of the Republic of Ireland, be at least 18 years old, be listed as a resident of the parliamentary constituency or local government area in question on the register of electors (see elector), and be free of any legal incapacity to vote. Individuals who are serving imprisonment sentences, individuals who have been convicted of specific offenses related to elections or public official extortion within the past five years, and individuals who are unable to comprehend the nature of their actions are considered incapacitated. EU citizens who have resided in the United Kingdom prior to December 31, 2020, are entitled to vote in local and devolved body elections. The voting rights of EU citizens who arrive after that date will be contingent upon mutual agreements between the UK and the EU state in question. 3. (in the context of commercial law) A license that is granted to a manufacturer, distributor, merchant, or other entity to permit the production or sale of a specific product or service in a specific region for a specified duration. The holder of the license (franchisee) typically pays the grantor of the license (franchisor) a royalty on sales, frequently in the form of a fixed sum as an advance against royalties. Additionally, the franchisor may provide the franchisee with technical and financial expertise, as well as a brand identity. In the fast-food industry, petrol stations, and travel agents, franchises are prevalent. In the European Union, a franchise contract must adhere to regulation 330/2010, which is known as the vertical block exemption. This regulation delineates the provisions that are permissible and those that are prohibited under EU competition law. The regulation remains exempt from UK competition law after Brexit, as it is based on EU law. The accompanying Vertical Guidelines offer specific guidance on franchise contract terms. The regulation and guidance are scheduled for revision by June 1, 2022.
1. In constitutional law, a unique privilege that the Crown grants to a subject. It is also referred to as a liberty and is exemplified by the right to operate a ferry or market. 2. (Constitutional law) The ability to vote in an election. In order to be eligible to vote in a parliamentary election, an individual must meet the following criteria: be a Commonwealth citizen or a citizen of the Republic of Ireland, be at least 18 years old, be listed as a resident of the parliamentary constituency or local government area in question on the register of electors (see elector), and be free of any legal incapacity to vote. Individuals who are serving imprisonment sentences, individuals who have been convicted of specific offenses related to elections or public official extortion within the past five years, and individuals who are unable to comprehend the nature of their actions are considered incapacitated. EU citizens who have resided in the United Kingdom prior to December 31, 2020, are entitled to vote in local and devolved body elections. The voting rights of EU citizens who arrive after that date will be contingent upon mutual agreements between the UK and the EU state in question. 3. (in the context of commercial law) A license that is granted to a manufacturer, distributor, merchant, or other entity to permit the production or sale of a specific product or service in a specific region for a specified duration. The holder of the license (franchisee) typically pays the grantor of the license (franchisor) a royalty on sales, frequently in the form of a fixed sum as an advance against royalties. Additionally, the franchisor may provide the franchisee with technical and financial expertise, as well as a brand identity. In the fast-food industry, petrol stations, and travel agents, franchises are prevalent. In the European Union, a franchise contract must adhere to regulation 330/2010, which is known as the vertical block exemption. This regulation delineates the provisions that are permissible and those that are prohibited under EU competition law. The regulation remains exempt from UK competition law after Brexit, as it is based on EU law. The accompanying Vertical Guidelines offer specific guidance on franchise contract terms. The regulation and guidance are scheduled for revision by June 1, 2022.
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Legal Terms - Fraud
The act of dishonestly creating a false (untrue or misleading) representation with the intention of causing loss or gaining an advantage. The Fraud Act 2006, which was enacted on 15 January 2007, established a general offense of fraud that supplanted the deception offenses established under the Theft Acts of 1968 and 1978. The Act establishes three distinct methods of committing fraud: fraud by false representation (s2), fraud by neglecting to disclose information (s3), and fraud by abuse of position (s4). The offense is punishable by a maximum of ten years' imprisonment, a fine, or both on indictment. On summary conviction, it is punishable by a term not exceeding six months' imprisonment, a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum, or both. If the deceived party sustains an injury as a consequence of the deception, they may pursue damages for the tort of deceit. Fraudulent misrepresentation renders a contract voidable. Additionally, constructive fraud is discussed. See cheating, conspiracy, cybercrime, defrauding, dishonesty, false pretense, and forgery in relation to crime.
The act of dishonestly creating a false (untrue or misleading) representation with the intention of causing loss or gaining an advantage. The Fraud Act 2006, which was enacted on 15 January 2007, established a general offense of fraud that supplanted the deception offenses established under the Theft Acts of 1968 and 1978. The Act establishes three distinct methods of committing fraud: fraud by false representation (s2), fraud by neglecting to disclose information (s3), and fraud by abuse of position (s4). The offense is punishable by a maximum of ten years' imprisonment, a fine, or both on indictment. On summary conviction, it is punishable by a term not exceeding six months' imprisonment, a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum, or both. If the deceived party sustains an injury as a consequence of the deception, they may pursue damages for the tort of deceit. Fraudulent misrepresentation renders a contract voidable. Additionally, constructive fraud is discussed. See cheating, conspiracy, cybercrime, defrauding, dishonesty, false pretense, and forgery in relation to crime.
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Legal Terms – Fraud on a Power
An exercise of a *power of appointment that, despite being made to an object within the class selected by the donor, was made in circumstances that render it null and void. For instance, when the appointor intended to obtain a benefit for himself or another, or when there was a deliberate intention to undermine the intentions of the power donor.
An exercise of a *power of appointment that, despite being made to an object within the class selected by the donor, was made in circumstances that render it null and void. For instance, when the appointor intended to obtain a benefit for himself or another, or when there was a deliberate intention to undermine the intentions of the power donor.
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Legal Terms - Forfeiture
The loss of property or a right due to an offense or the violation of an obligation. The courts may mandate property forfeiture in four primary circumstances. Illegally possessed property is liable to forfeiture under the Proceeds of Crime Act 2002. 2. Any property associated with an offence under the Misuse of Drugs Act 1971 or the Drug Trafficking Offences Act 1986 (refer to restricted drugs) may be forfeited and either destroyed or managed at the court's discretion (this encompasses the proceeds from drug sales). 3. Property may be forfeited if it is lawfully owned but utilized (or intended for use) in the commission of a crime (e.g., a getaway vehicle) when the owner has a prior conviction for an offense. Property seized under this designation is retained by the police for a duration of six months before being disposed of. 4. Most contracts stipulate that the landlord may terminate the lease if the tenant breaches their covenants. The landlord is required to adhere to a specific procedure prior to executing forfeiture. In instances of forfeiture due to nonpayment of rent, the landlord is required to issue a formal demand for the rent unless the lease absolves him of this obligation. Upon the breaking of additional covenants, the landlord is obligated to issue a statutory notice to the tenant, detailing the breach, mandating rectification if feasible, and stipulating monetary compensation if warranted. If the tenant does not adhere to the notification, the landlord may initiate forfeiture proceedings. This may be accomplished through legal processes for possession or, less commonly, by amicable re-entry. A landlord forfeits his right to terminate the lease if he acknowledges it as ongoing while possessing the right to forfeit (for instance, by taking rent from the renter). This is referred to as a waiver of forfeiture. Certain contracts have a waiver clause stipulating that the landlord is considered to have retained the right to forfeit, even upon acceptance of rent from the tenant.
The loss of property or a right due to an offense or the violation of an obligation. The courts may mandate property forfeiture in four primary circumstances. Illegally possessed property is liable to forfeiture under the Proceeds of Crime Act 2002. 2. Any property associated with an offence under the Misuse of Drugs Act 1971 or the Drug Trafficking Offences Act 1986 (refer to restricted drugs) may be forfeited and either destroyed or managed at the court's discretion (this encompasses the proceeds from drug sales). 3. Property may be forfeited if it is lawfully owned but utilized (or intended for use) in the commission of a crime (e.g., a getaway vehicle) when the owner has a prior conviction for an offense. Property seized under this designation is retained by the police for a duration of six months before being disposed of. 4. Most contracts stipulate that the landlord may terminate the lease if the tenant breaches their covenants. The landlord is required to adhere to a specific procedure prior to executing forfeiture. In instances of forfeiture due to nonpayment of rent, the landlord is required to issue a formal demand for the rent unless the lease absolves him of this obligation. Upon the breaking of additional covenants, the landlord is obligated to issue a statutory notice to the tenant, detailing the breach, mandating rectification if feasible, and stipulating monetary compensation if warranted. If the tenant does not adhere to the notification, the landlord may initiate forfeiture proceedings. This may be accomplished through legal processes for possession or, less commonly, by amicable re-entry. A landlord forfeits his right to terminate the lease if he acknowledges it as ongoing while possessing the right to forfeit (for instance, by taking rent from the renter). This is referred to as a waiver of forfeiture. Certain contracts have a waiver clause stipulating that the landlord is considered to have retained the right to forfeit, even upon acceptance of rent from the tenant.
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Legal Terms - Footpath
Any highway (excluding a footway) that the public has a right of way on foot only, as defined by the Highways Act 1980. Footpaths and bridleways that were in existence on 1 January 1949 but are not recorded on the definitive map by 1 January 2026 will be extinguished, as stipulated in the Countryside and Rights Act 2000. Compare the following terms: carriageway, driftway, and bridleway.
Any highway (excluding a footway) that the public has a right of way on foot only, as defined by the Highways Act 1980. Footpaths and bridleways that were in existence on 1 January 1949 but are not recorded on the definitive map by 1 January 2026 will be extinguished, as stipulated in the Countryside and Rights Act 2000. Compare the following terms: carriageway, driftway, and bridleway.
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Legal Terms- Footway
Any path that is part of a highway that also includes a passageway for vehicles and over which the public has a right of way on foot only, as defined by the Highways Act 1980. Compare the footpath.
Any path that is part of a highway that also includes a passageway for vehicles and over which the public has a right of way on foot only, as defined by the Highways Act 1980. Compare the footpath.
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Legal Terms- Forbearance
The intentional abdication of a legal right, such as the right to suit for a debt. A debtor's request to forbear from pursuing legal action may be considered "consideration" for a new promise made by the debtor. If the claim is deemed to be genuine, a promise not to enforce a claim that is unconstitutional may still be taken into account. In certain circumstances, a requested forbearance may have more limited effects, either at common law or in equity, even if it is not binding (e.g., it may not be revoked without reasonable notice).
The intentional abdication of a legal right, such as the right to suit for a debt. A debtor's request to forbear from pursuing legal action may be considered "consideration" for a new promise made by the debtor. If the claim is deemed to be genuine, a promise not to enforce a claim that is unconstitutional may still be taken into account. In certain circumstances, a requested forbearance may have more limited effects, either at common law or in equity, even if it is not binding (e.g., it may not be revoked without reasonable notice).
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Legal Terms - Force
In public international law, any action taken by a state that violates the norms of international law as outlined in the UN Charter and other international conventions. This may involve the implementation of political, financial, or military strategies.
In public international law, any action taken by a state that violates the norms of international law as outlined in the UN Charter and other international conventions. This may involve the implementation of political, financial, or military strategies.
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egal Terms – Force heirship
A principle in numerous foreign jurisdictions, such as France, is that a person's estate must devolve and be divided among specified relatives in specified proportions upon their demise. This devolution cannot be overridden by a will. Contrast the freedom of testation. EU regulation 650/2012, which was implemented on 17 August 2015, allows a national of an EU country to specify in their will that the law of their nationality will regulate the succession to their estate. This regulation is frequently referred to as "Brussels IV." The United Kingdom withdrew from the regulation prior to its decision to exit the European Union.
A principle in numerous foreign jurisdictions, such as France, is that a person's estate must devolve and be divided among specified relatives in specified proportions upon their demise. This devolution cannot be overridden by a will. Contrast the freedom of testation. EU regulation 650/2012, which was implemented on 17 August 2015, allows a national of an EU country to specify in their will that the law of their nationality will regulate the succession to their estate. This regulation is frequently referred to as "Brussels IV." The United Kingdom withdrew from the regulation prior to its decision to exit the European Union.
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Legal Terms – Force Marriage
A marriage in which one party does not consent to the union and there is a degree of coercion. A compelled marriage is voidable under the Matrimonial Causes Act 1973 s 12(1)(c) and can be annulled by the court, while an arranged marriage is lawful. The courts draw a clear distinction between the two. In the latter scenario, the families of both spouses are involved in the arrangement of the marriage; however, the decision to accept or decline it is ultimately up to the individuals (NS v MI). [2006] EWHC 1646 (Fam), [2007] 1 FLR 444; P v R (Forced Marriage: Annulment: Procedure) [2003] 1 FLR 661). Until recently, the sole civil remedy available to a victim was to petition for a *non-molestation order or a *occupation order under the Family Law Act 1996 or an injunction under the Protection from Harassment Act 1997. A forced marriage protection order, which is issued under pt 4A of the Family Law Act 1996, may now be used to safeguard victims of coerced marriages. There are criminal offenses that are both freestanding and related to the violation of an order.
A marriage in which one party does not consent to the union and there is a degree of coercion. A compelled marriage is voidable under the Matrimonial Causes Act 1973 s 12(1)(c) and can be annulled by the court, while an arranged marriage is lawful. The courts draw a clear distinction between the two. In the latter scenario, the families of both spouses are involved in the arrangement of the marriage; however, the decision to accept or decline it is ultimately up to the individuals (NS v MI). [2006] EWHC 1646 (Fam), [2007] 1 FLR 444; P v R (Forced Marriage: Annulment: Procedure) [2003] 1 FLR 661). Until recently, the sole civil remedy available to a victim was to petition for a *non-molestation order or a *occupation order under the Family Law Act 1996 or an injunction under the Protection from Harassment Act 1997. A forced marriage protection order, which is issued under pt 4A of the Family Law Act 1996, may now be used to safeguard victims of coerced marriages. There are criminal offenses that are both freestanding and related to the violation of an order.
